bluecoconuts
Legend
- Joined
- May 28, 2011
- Messages
- 13,073
Exactly, I thought a good starting point would be not making fun of someone for being gay.Seriously guys, can we grow up here?
Cool. We'll leave it at that.
I have absolutely no problem with drug use. It's absolutely no one elses business, especially the gov't's. It's a victimless act, which is protected from gov't infringement in the US Constitution. Anyway, sounds like I'll need to see this movie.You actually did. Which is why when I explained to you that is was a movie title you changed your stance from "drug addict" to "glorifying the use of drugs". Which is all completely unrelated. I liked the movie, and I like the rapper. Its obvious you were just trying to get a rise out of me with those comments (trolling) so it is what it is.
None of tht has anything to do with the fact that this all started with you making fun of one of our own for being gay, I didnt like that so I addressed it. Im done with this. I cant go any further and also refrain from telling you what I really think of you so I wont out of respect for this board.
I agree with your stance on drugs 100%. But yeah, definitely check it out if you get a chance its pretty eye openingI have absolutely no problem with drug use. It's absolutely no one elses business, especially the gov't's. It's a victimless act, which is protected from gov't infringement in the US Constitution. Anyway, sounds like I'll need to see this movie.
I have absolutely no problem with drug use. It's absolutely no one elses business, especially the gov't's. It's a victimless act, which is protected from gov't infringement in the US Constitution. Anyway, sounds like I'll need to see this movie.
I don't want to derail this thread (and let me know if I do, moderators), but if someone commits a crime (eg stealing from, mugging or raping someone) while under the influence of drugs, how is that "victimless"?It's a victimless act..
It's not. When someone commits a crime against someone else then the system is setup such that the people can defer to the gov't to mediate the infringement between both parties: the offender and the offended. The gov't basically is supposed to administer the process, while a both parties state their case to a jury of their peers, who then decide appropriate punishments.I don't want to derail this thread (and let me know if I do, moderators), but if someone commits a crime (eg stealing from, mugging or raping someone) while under the influence of drugs, how is that "victimless"?